India's last census was carried out in 2011 when the country's population stood at 121 crore. The next census of India will be carried out in 2021 with March 1 of that year as the reference date, the Home Ministry announced Thursday
Census 2021 - Circulars of India
India's last census was carried out in 2011 when the country's population stood at 121 crore. The next census of India will be carried out in 2021 with March 1 of that year as the reference date, the Home Ministry announced Thursday
SSC Data Entry Operator: Solved Previous Question Paper
(a) Keyboard
(b) MICR
(c) OCR
(d) Scanner
2. .................. can't be used for source of data automation.
(a) POS terminal
(b) OCR
(c) Keyboard
(d) UPC
3. Under which case will intranet be an effective networking tool?
(a) In a distributed decision-making environment
(b) Where heterogeneous applications are involved
(c) In a centralised organization
(d) In a decentralised organization
4. When an organization gives contract for development of software, it has to give data to the service provider. In Such cases, the ownership of data should be_________
(a) Transferred to the service provider
(b) With the client/organization that outsource services
(c) Shared by both parties
(d) Not transferred
5. A modem performs_________
(a) Modulation
(b) Demodulation
(c) Data compression
(d) All of these
6. Which of the following is NOT done by modem?
(a) Transmission Speed
(b) Data Accuracy
(b) Error detection and Correction
(d) Data Compression
7. A program coded in programming language is____________.
(a) Target code
(b) Source code
(c) Block
(d) None of these
8. "Platform" in computer world means___________.
(a) Computer hardware used
(b) Operating Systems used
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
9. Which of these biometric tools use thermal sensors along with infrared rays for identification?
(a) Key stroke dynamics
(b) Iris Retinal scans
(c) Speech recognition
(d)Fingerprint scanning
10. What is incorrect about software?
(a) It can manipulate computer
(b) It has programs, instructions
(c) It can be touched
(d) It can be touched
11. Disadvantage of distributed database is.
(a) Unreliability
(b) Easy implementation
(c) Insecurity
(d) High communication cost
12. Which of the following transmission techniques let computer to alternatively send and receive data?
(a) Simplex
(b) Half duplex
(c) Full duplex
(d) Multiplexing
13. What is NOT a feature of networking?
(a) Reliability
(b) Greater storage space
(c) Connectivity
(d) All are features of networking
14. Taking back-up of a file against crash is a
(a) Preventive measure
(b) Curative measure
(c) Decisive measure
(d) None of these
15. A memory that is referred by its contents instead of physical address is called ________
(a) Associative memory
(b) Content addressable storage
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
16. Most dangerous risk in leaking of information is :
(a) Ready access to online terminals
(b) Online processing of data
(c) Ignorance about the existence of risk
(d) All of these
17. A camera is an
(a) Input device
(b) Can be either input or output
(c) Processing machine
(b) Output device
18. Using anti-virus software is
(a) Preventive measure
(b) Detective measure
(c) Corrective measure
(d) All the above
19. An online transaction is
(a) One that is done in real time
(b) Transaction done via internet
(c) One that is done via telephone
(d) None of these
20. A clerk in a bank has to access data n customer account. Logical access control for these users would be.
(a) Use of individual passwords
(b) Use of an Accounts Receivable Section password
(c) Use of individual passwords plus separate access passwords for customer data and product data
(d) Can't say
21. To stop unauthorized access to the computer system we should
(a) Have a trustworthy system administrator
(b) Have a good passwords policy
(c) Have a sound encryption policy
(d) All of the above
22. Which cannot assure data accuracy in an application?
(a) Limit and reasonableness test
(b) Echo checking
(c) Control total
(d) None of these
23. Maximum storage space is available on
(a) CDs
(b) ROM
(c) Hard disks
(d) Floppies
24. Jon Von Neumann developed:
(a) First electronic chip flip flop
(b) Stored-program concept
(c) The first electronic computer
(d) None of these
25. Which of the following is single user computer with many features and good processing power?
(a) Minicomputer
(b) Workstation
(c) Macintosh
(d) None of these
Answers
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (b)16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (b)
AAI Junior Assistant (Fire Service) vacancy Aug-2010
- Junior Assistant (Fire Service) : 244 posts (SC-33, ST-13, OBC-70, UR- 128), Pay Scale : Rs. 5500-10060, Age : 18 to 30 years as on 13/08/2010
How to Apply : Candidates should submit their application on plain paper in Hindi / English in the prescribed format addressed to The Regional Executive Director, Airports Authority of India, Southern Region, Chennai – 600027 (the envelope should be superscripted by the name of the post applied for) along with a Demand Draft for Rs.100/- drawn in favour of Airports Authority of India, payable at Chennai so as to reach on or before 27/08/2010. SC/ST candidates are exempted from payment of fees.
Further details and Applicaiton format is available at http://www.aai.aero/
http://job-hi-job.blogspot.com/
Bank of India PO Recruitment 20010-11
(A Public Sector Undertaking)
Head Office, Star House, Plot C-5, “G” Block, Bandra-Kurla Complex,
Bandra (East), Mumbai 400 051.
Probationary Officers (PO) – Recruitment Project 2010-11
Bank of India, a leading Public Sector Bank having Head Office in Mumbai invites applications for recruitment of 2000 posts in Officer Cadre.
- Probationary Officer (PO) : 2000 posts (UR-1010, SC-300, ST-150, OBC-540) (PH-60) in , Age (as on 30/6/10) : 21-30 years, Pay Scale : Rs. 14500-25700/- ,Qualification : (1) Pass with 50% marks in the aggregate, either in the Higher Secondary School (HSC) Examination or Standard XII under the 10+2+3 pattern or Standard XI under the 11+4 pattern or its equivalent or a degree from UGC recognized University (Graduation level).
Application Fee : Rs.400/- only (no fee for SC/ST/PWD/Ex-SM candidates) to be paid in any of Bank of India Branches by computer-generated challan.
How to Apply : The candidate should apply on-line through web site only upto 31/08/2010. Only after updating the valid fee details, the candidate would be allowed to take a printout of the already registered on-line application. This printout along with the challan and required copies of documents should be kept ready for submission if selected for Interview.
Important Dates :
- Submission of On-line application commencing on : 09/08/2010
- Last date for On-line registration : 31/08/2010
- Tentative Date of Written Examination : 31/10/2010
Various jobs in HSSC Advt. No. 02/2010
Bays No. 67-70, Sector-2, Panchkula-134151
Adv. No. 2/2010
Closing date for receipt of applications in the Commission's office : 13/09/2010
Applications are invited through Registered Post by Haryana SSC for the under mentioned posts on the prescribed application form. The candidates should specify on the top of the envelope the word - Advt. No., Name and Category of the post applied for :
- Horticulture Supervisor : 03 posts
- Junior Engineer (Civil) : 10 posts
- Assistant Superintendent Jail (Male) : 329 posts
- Assistant Superintendent Jail (Female) : 01 post
- Wireless Mechanic: 01 post
- Wireless Operator : 10 posts
- Pipe Band Man : 03 posts
- Armourer : 01 post
- Buglar : 02 posts
- Store Man (HG) : 02 posts
- Operation Theatre Assistant : 03 posts
- Inspector Wild Life : 01 post
- Hostel Warden : 01 post
- Labour Inspector : 22 posts
- Municipal Engineer : 38 posts
- Ispector Audit : 19 posts
- Senior Auditor, Cooperative Societis : 01 post
- Auditor : 41 posts
- Assistant Aecheologist : 01 post
- Assistant Chemist: 01 post
- Techncial Assistant : 02 posts
- Hostel Superintendent (Female) : 01 post
- Junior Assistant : 06 posts
- Tabla Player : 04 posts
- Junior Engineer (Civil) : 267 posts
- Junior Engineer (Mechanical) : 32 posts
- Junior Engineer (Civil) : 32 posts
- Junior Engineer (Mechanical) : 08 posts
- Accounts Assistant : 04 posts
- Junior Engineer (Civil) : 05 posts
- Junior Engineer (Electrical) : 02 posts
- Draftsman (Civil) : 01 post
- Office Associate : 120 posts
- Junior Engineer (Horticulture) : 07 posts
- Tourist Officer : 01 post
- Junior Engineer (Civil) : 06 posts
- Junior Engineer (Electrical) : 01 post
- Junior Accountant : 05 posts
- Junior Engineer (Civil) : 03 posts
- Protection Assistant : 19 posts
- Junior Engineer (Civil) : 30 posts
- Senior Scale Stenographer : 02 posts
- Junior Scale Stenographer : 03 posts
- Accounts Clerk : 06 posts
- Senior Scale Stenographer : 01 post
- Sub Station Generator Attendant : 01 post
- General- Rs.150/- / 100/- depending on the posts .
- SC/BC/ ESM/ PH candidates of Haryana- Rs.35/- / 25/- depending upon the posts
- No concession of fee for SC/BC/ESM from other states.
Reservation and Age relaxation as per Govt. orders.
Technical Officer Job in Heavy Water Board Aug-2010
Department of Atomic Energy, Government of India
V.S.Bhavan, 4th floor, Anushaktinagar, Mumbai - 400094
Advertisement No. HWB/2/2010
Applications are invited for the following posts:
- Technical Officer / Engineer `D’ (Chemical) : 14 posts
- Technical Officer/ Engineer `D’ (Mechanical) : 11 posts
- Technical Officer/ Engineer `D’ (Electrical) : 04 posts
- Technical Officer/ Engineer `D’ (Instrumentation) : 05 posts
- Technical Officer/ Engineer ‘D’ (Civil) : 04 posts
- Technical Officer/ Engineer “D’ (Chemistry) : 01 post
Pay Scale : Rs. 15600-39100 with Grade Pay of Rs.6600/-
How to Apply : Apply in the prescribed application format alongwith a attested copies of certificates and a recent passport size photograph should be affixed on the right hand top corner of the application should be send to Administrative Officer-III, Heavy Water Board, Vikram Sarabhai Bhavan, 4th Floor, Anushaktinagar, Mumbai - 400094 so as to reach on oe before 15/09/2010. The application and the outer cover should be superscribed as "Application for the post of ______, Post No. ___ Discipline ____ against Advertisement No. HWB/2/2010".
Please visit http://www.heavywaterboard.
Army SSc Officer Remount Veterinary Entry 2010
Applications are invited from qualified male veterinary graduates for SSC in Remount Veterinary Corps of Indian Army as per the details given below :
- Age : 21-32 years as on 15/09/2010
- Qualification : BVSc./BVSc. & AH degree from any recognised Indian University or equivalent.
- Pay Scale : Rs.15600-39100 grade pay Rs.6100/- pluus MPS Rs.6000/- plus 25% NPA
- Method of Selection : shortlisting of applications will be done at Directorate General Remount Vetrinary Corps, those found eligible will be called for SSB on a specified date. On arrival at the SSB, the Shortlisted candidates will be administeredstage-1 of the two stage testing procedure. Those who qualify will be detailed to undergo Group Test, Psychological Test and Interview which will extend for a duration o 5 days.
- Medical Examination : Candidates recommended by the SSB will go under Medical Examination by a Board of Service Medical Officers.
Directorate General Remount Veterinary Services (RV-I)
QMG's Branch, Integrated Hq. of MoD (Army)
West Block, 3, RK Puram, New Delhi - 110066
Further detail regarding this entry scheme can be seen at http://indianarmy.nic.in/ OR please see Employment News dated 14/08/2010 to 20/08/2010
United Bank Clerk recruitment Aug-2010
( A Govt. of India Undertaking)
11, Hemant Basu Sarani, Kolkata – 700001
United Bank of India, a leading (Nationalised) Public Sector Bank having one of the highest business productivity and profitability growth rate with all India presentation, invites applications from Indian citizens for following posts :
- Clerk : 700 posts (UR-378,SC-109,ST-60,OBC-153) in various states of India, Age : 18-28 years, Qualification : 10+2 with minimum 60% marks, 5% relaxation for SC/ST/OBC or Graduate in any discipline, should have 3 months course from State/Central Government or AICTE recognised insitution, Pay Scale : Rs. 7200-19300/-
Applicaton Fee : Rs.200/- (Rs.50/- for SC/ST/PWD/XS candidates) to be deposited at any of the Branches of United Bank of India, through a Deposit Challan as per the format given on the Bank’s website in the account no. 0098012426107
How to Apply : Apply online at United Bank website only from 23/08/2010 to 22/09/2010. Take a printout of the submitted application form and keep it for future use and reference only. Please do not send it the bank.:
Important Dates :
- Opening Date for online Application : 23/08/2010
- Closing Date for online Application : 22/09/2010
- Tentative Date of Written Test : 28/11/2010
Recruitment of 17000 Constables/ General Duty (Male/ Female) in CRPF 2010
Recruitment of Constable/ General Duty (Male/ Female) in CRPF 2010
Applications are invited from the Male/ Female Indian Citizens to fill up the vacancies in the rank of constable/ GD (Male/ Female) in Central Reserve Police Force.:
• Constable/ General Duty (Male/ Female) in the following States:
Andhra Pradesh
Arunchal Pradesh, Assam & Meghalaya
Bihar
Chandigarh, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab
Chhattisgarh
Delhi, Rajasthan & Haryana
Dadra & Nagar Haveli, Daman & Diu, Goa, Gujarat & Maharashtra
Jammu
Kolkata
Manipur & Nagaland
Madhya Pradesh
Miroram & Tripura
Srinagar
Uttar Pradesh & Uttrakhand
o Pay: PB-1 + GP Rs. 2000
o Age: 18-23 years as on 01.08.2010
o Qualification: Matriculation or 10th class passed from recognized board or university.
• Last Date: 25.0: 8.2010.
25 Questions on Computer General Knowledge. We hope that this will help you prepare for the exam.
Click for Syllabus of SSC Data Entry Operator Recruitment Exam
1. The banks use ................ device to minimize conversion process.
(a) Keyboard
(b) MICR
(c) OCR
(d) Scanner
2. .................. can't be used for source of data automation.
(a) POS terminal
(b) OCR
(c) Keyboard
(d) UPC
3. Under which case will intranet be an effective networking tool?
(a) In a distributed decision-making environment
(b) Where heterogeneous applications are involved
(c) In a centralised organization
(d) In a decentralised organization
4. When an organization gives contract for development of software, it has to give data to the service provider. In Such cases, the ownership of data should be_________
(a) Transferred to the service provider
(b) With the client/organization that outsource services
(c) Shared by both parties
(d) Not transferred
5. A modem performs_________
(a) Modulation
(b) Demodulation
(c) Data compression
(d) All of these
6. Which of the following is NOT done by modem?
(a) Transmission Speed
(b) Data Accuracy
(b) Error detection and Correction
(d) Data Compression
7. A program coded in programming language is____________.
(a) Target code
(b) Source code
(c) Block
(d) None of these
8. "Platform" in computer world means___________.
(a) Computer hardware used
(b) Operating Systems used
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
9. Which of these biometric tools use thermal sensors along with infrared rays for identification?
(a) Key stroke dynamics
(b) Iris Retinal scans
(c) Speech recognition
(d)Fingerprint scanning
10. What is incorrect about software?
(a) It can manipulate computer
(b) It has programs, instructions
(c) It can be touched
(d) It can be touched
11. Disadvantage of distributed database is.
(a) Unreliability
(b) Easy implementation
(c) Insecurity
(d) High communication cost
12. Which of the following transmission techniques let computer to alternatively send and receive data?
(a) Simplex
(b) Half duplex
(c) Full duplex
(d) Multiplexing
13. What is NOT a feature of networking?
(a) Reliability
(b) Greater storage space
(c) Connectivity
(d) All are features of networking
14. Taking back-up of a file against crash is a
(a) Preventive measure
(b) Curative measure
(c) Decisive measure
(d) None of these
15. A memory that is referred by its contents instead of physical address is called ________
(a) Associative memory
(b) Content addressable storage
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
16. Most dangerous risk in leaking of information is :
(a) Ready access to online terminals
(b) Online processing of data
(c) Ignorance about the existence of risk
(d) All of these
17. A camera is an
(a) Input device
(b) Can be either input or output
(c) Processing machine
(b) Output device
18. Using anti-virus software is
(a) Preventive measure
(b) Detective measure
(c) Corrective measure
(d) All the above
19. An online transaction is
(a) One that is done in real time
(b) Transaction done via internet
(c) One that is done via telephone
(d) None of these
20. A clerk in a bank has to access data n customer account. Logical access control for these users would be.
(a) Use of individual passwords
(b) Use of an Accounts Receivable Section password
(c) Use of individual passwords plus separate access passwords for customer data and product data
(d) Can't say
21. To stop unauthorized access to the computer system we should
(a) Have a trustworthy system administrator
(b) Have a good passwords policy
(c) Have a sound encryption policy
(d) All of the above
22. Which cannot assure data accuracy in an application?
(a) Limit and reasonableness test
(b) Echo checking
(c) Control total
(d) None of these
23. Maximum storage space is available on
(a) CDs
(b) ROM
(c) Hard disks
(d) Floppies
24. Jon Von Neumann developed:
(a) First electronic chip flip flop
(b) Stored-program concept
(c) The first electronic computer
(d) None of these
25. Which of the following is single user computer with many features and good processing power?
(a) Minicomputer
(b) Workstation
(c) Macintosh
(d) None of these
Answers
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (b)16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (b)
Solved Paper for Data Entry Operator Exam
SSC data entry operator
1.One of the output devices your computer uses is the
(A) mouse
(B) keyboard
(C) monitor
(D) cord
2.All of these are examples of good posture EXCEPT:
(A) back straight
(B) eyes on monitor
(C) feet on the floor
(D) elbows on the table
3.When you store your work so you can come back to it later, you:
(A) click it
(B) save it
(C) type it
(D) print it
4.An example of an input device is:
(A) a speaker
(B) a mouse
(C) a monitor
(D) a printer
5.The computer screen is also called the:
(A) viewer
(B) TV
(C) monitor
(D) video output device
6. To close a program, you would:
(A) shut down the compute
(B) click the _ in the top right hand corner
(C) click the middle box in the top right hand corner
(D) click the X in the top right hand corner
7. What does it mean to have a clean desktop?
(A) there are no programs open on the desktop
(B) there are no bits of paper on the floor
(C) everything is turned off
(D) you have thoroughly dusted your area
8.The main chip in the computer is the:
(A) ROM
(B) CPU
(C) NET
(D) RAM
9. AM stands for:
(A) Really Accessable Memory
(B) Real Access Memory
(C) Random Available Mode
(D) Random Access Memory
10. The instructions that tell the computer what to do and how to do it.
(A) hardware
(B) software
(C) processor
(D) data flow
11. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the
Lok Sabha is :
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
12. The sanctioned strength of the Judges of Supreme Court of
including the Chief Justice is :
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 20
(D) 26
13. Who was the first President of India to be elected unopposed?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishana
(B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
14. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is :
(A) 525 and 250
(B) 552 and 250
(C) 535 and 275
(D) 500 and 250
15. If the Vice-president were to submit his resignation, he would notify to
:
(A) The President of
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief Justic of India
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
16. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 70
17.
Games. The other two are :
(A)
(B)
(C) Jamaica & China
(D)
18. The Comptroller and Auditor General of
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Lok Sabha
19. Article 370 of the Indian constitution deals with :
(A) The Emergency Powers of the President
(B) The special position of the state of Jammu and Kashmir
(C) The power of the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme
Court on any matter of public importance
(D) Distribution of taxes between the Centre and the State
20. The Supreme commander of the Defence Forces of India is :
(A) The Defence Minister
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief of the Army Staff
(D) The President of
21. Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley?
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Tapti
(D)
22. The Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of :
(A) Assam
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) West Bengal
23. How many major ports are there at present in
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 14
24. The earth revolves round the sun and its causes :
(A) Differences in longitude and time
(B) Changes of seasons
(C) Deflection of winds and currents
(D) Formation of day and night
25. Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in :
(A) Kilometres from the Equator
(B) Angles from the Equator
(C) Angles from the Poles
(D) None of the above
26. The earth is :
(A) Spherical
(B) Elliptical
(C) Oblate Spheroid
(D) Prolate Spheroid
27. Day and Night are equal at the :
(A) Equator
(B) Poles
(C) Prime Meridian
(D) Antarctic
28. The heaviest planet revolving round the sun is :
(A) Moon
(B) Jupiter
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto
29. The biggest Planet is :
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Mercury
(D) Jupiter
30. The International Date line passes through :
(A) Exactly through 180° Longitude
(B) Equator
(C) Approximately 180° east or west meridian
(D) 0° Meridian
31. The largest river of Asia is :
(A) Yangtze
(B) Yenisei
(C) Indus
(D)
32. Which country is called the `Sugar Bowl’ of the world?
(A)
(B)
(C) Nepal
(D)
33. Which of the following countries has the largest area in the world?
(A)
(B)
(C) Canada
(D)
34. The world’s highest waterfall, the
(A) Venezuela
(B) USA
(C) Guyana
(D)
35. The universe is composed of :
(A) Earth
(B) Earth and the Sun
(C) Mat
(D) None
36. The Temperate Grasslands of South America are called :
(A) Pampas
(B) Steppes
(C) Savanna
(D) Evergreen grasslands
37. Rial is the currency of :
(A) Romania
(B) Iran
(C) Japan
(D)
38. New Moore island is situated in the :
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Bay of Bengal
(C) Arabian Sea
(D) China Sea
39. Which river in the world carries the maximum volume of water?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Mississippi
(D)
40. Which of the following rivers crosses the equator twice?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Congo
(D)
41. The
(A) Egyptians
(B) Sumerians
(C) Chinese
(D) Mesopotamians
42. The Indus Valley Civilization was famous for :
(A) Well planned cities
(B) Efficient civic organisation
(C) Progress of art and architecture
(D) All the above
43. Who was mainly worshipped in the Rig Vedic Period?
(A) Indra
(B) Vishnu
(C) Sun
(D) Trimurti
44. Who is regarded as the great law-giver of ancient
(A) Panini
(B) Manu
(C) Kautilya
(D) Dhruv
45. Which of the following is the oldest Veda?
(A) Samaveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda
46. Who among the following was called Light of Asia?
(A) Mahavira
(B) Buddha
(C) Akbar
(D) Ashoka
47. Who was the founder of the Gupta dynasty?
(A) Srigupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Kumargupta
48. The Upanishads are :
(A) A source of Hindu philosophy
(B) Books of Ancient Hindu laws
(C) Books on social behaviour of man
(D) Prayers to God
49. The biggest mosque of
(A) Aurangzeb
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Jahangir
50. The first Battle of Panipat was fought between :
(A) Sher Shah Suri and Akbar
(B) Humayun and Ibrahim Lodhi
(C) Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi
(D) Babar and Ranasanga
*ANSWERS :*
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20.
(D) 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D)
30. (C)
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40.
(A)
41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50.
(C)
SSC Data Entry Operator Solved Paper
Q-1 The bank use……………. Device to minimize conversion process.
(a) Keyboard
(b) MICR
(c) OCR
(d) Scanner
Q-2 ………………can’t be used for source of data automation.
(a) POS terminal
(b) OCR
(c) Keyboard
(d) UPC
Q-3 Under which case will intranet be an effective networking tool/s?
(a) In a distributed decision-making environment
(b) Where heterogeneous applications are involved
(c) In a centralized organization
(d) In a decentralized organization
Q-4 When an organization gives contract for development of software, it has to give data to the service provider. In Such cases, the ownership of data should be_________
(a) Transferred to the service provider
(b) With the client/organization that outsource services
(c) Shared by both parties
(d) Not transferred
Q-5 A modem performs_________
(a) Modulation
(b) Demodulation
(c) Data compression
(d) All of these
Q-6 Which of the following is NOT done by modem?
(a) Transmission Speed
(b) Data Accuracy
(b) Error detection and Correction
(d) Data Compression
Q-7 A program coded in programming language is____________ .
(a) Target code
(b) Source code
(c) Block
(d) None of these
Q-8 “Platform” in computer world means___________ .
(a) Computer hardware used
(b) Operating Systems used
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
Q-9 Which of these biometric tools use thermal sensors along with infrared rays for identification?
(a) Key stroke dynamics
(b) Luis\ Retinal scan
(c) Speech recognition
(d)Fingerprint scanning
Q-10 what is incorrect about software?
(a) It can manipulate computer
(b) It has programs, instructions
(c) It can be touched
(d) It can be touched
Q-11 Disadvantage of distributed database is.
(a) Unreliability
(b) Easy implementation
(c) Insecurity
(d) High communication cost
Q-12 which of the following transmission techniques let computer to alternatiyely send and receive data ?
(a) Simplex
(b) Half duplex
(c) Full duplex
(d) Multiplexing
Q-13 What is NOT a fature of networking ?
(a) Reliability
(b) Greater storage space
(c) Connectivity
(d) All are features of networking
Q-14 Taking back-up of a file against crash is a
(a) Preventive measure
(b) Curative measure
(c) Decisive measure
(d) None of these
Q-15 A memory that is referred by its contents instead of physical address is called ________
(a) Associative memory
(b) Content addressable storage
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Q-16 Most dangerous risk in leaking of information is :
(a) ready access to online terminals
(b) Online processing of data
(c) Ignorance about the existence of risk
(d) All of these
Q-17 A camera is an
(a) Input device
(b) Can be either input or output
(c) Processing machine
(d) Output device
Q-18 Using anti-virus software is
(a) Preventive measure
(b) Detective measure
(c) Corrective measure
(d) All the above
Q-19 An online transaction is
(a) One that is done in real time
(b) Transaction done via internet
(c) One that is done via telephone
(d) None of these
Q-20 A clerk in a bank has to access data n customer account. Logical access control for these users would be.
(a) Use of individual passwords
(b) Use of a Accounts Receivable Section password
(c) Use of individual passwords plus separate access passwords for customer data and product data
(d) Cann’t say
Q-21 To stop unauthorized access to the computer system we should
(a) Have a trustworthy system administrator
(b) Have a good passwords policy
(c) Have a sound encryption policy
(d) All of the above
Q-22 Which can not assure data accuracy in an application?
(a) Limit and reasonableness test
(b) Echo checking
(c) Control total
(d) None of these
Q-23 Maximum storage space is available on
(a) CDs
(b) ROM
(c) Hard disks
(d) Floppies
Q-24 Jon Von Neumann developed:
(a) First electronic chip flip flop
(b) Stored-program concept
(c) The first electronic computer
(d) None of these
Q-25 Which of the following is single user computer with many features and good processing power?
(a) Mini computer
(b) Workstation
(c) Macintosh
(d) None of these
Answers:
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d)
6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (b)
16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (b)
Solved Paper General Awareness 2009 STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION DATA ENTRY OPERATOR EXAM
This exam was held in Aug 2009
Questions are Simple MCQ on
current Affairs
Indian History
Important Days
Books
Polity
Constitution
Important places in
1.The RBI issues currency notes under the?
(A) Fixed Fiduciary System
(B) Maximum Fiduciary System
(C) Fixed Minimum Reserve System
(D) Proportional Reserve System
2. Which day is the International Human Rights Day?
(A) December 10th
(B) October 24th
(C) November 25th
(D) None of the above
3. The Capital of
(A)
(C) Lahore
(B)
(D)
4. Silicon Valley of
(A) Dehradun
(B)
(C) Hyderabad
(D)
5. The author of the book ‘
(A) Kuldeep Nawar
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Jawahar La! Nehru
(D) Indira Gandhi
6. The implementation of Jawahar Rojgar Yojana rests with?
(A) Gram Panchayats
(B) District Collectors
(C) State Governments
(D) Union Government
7. What is. quorum required for convening the Lok Sabha?
(A) 1/6
(B) 1/8
(C) 1/10
(D) 1/5
8. In the Parliamentary form of Government “He is the first among equals”. Who is he?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Leader of Opposition
(D) Speaker of lower house
9. Gandhiji’s movement of boycotting the foreign goods aimed at?
(A) Full independence
(B) Creating anti-British sentiment
(C) Promotion of welfare state
(0) Promotion of cottage industries
10. What is the maximum age limit prescribed for the post of the President of India ?
(A) 58 years
(B) 60 years
(C) 62 years
(D) There is no maximum age limit
11. The final of the Sultan Afzal Shah Hockey Tournament 2009
was played between?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(0)
12. The 2011 Cricket World Cup shall be co-hosted by?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(0)
13.English is the official language of which one of the following Indian States?
(A) Nagaland
(B) Tripura
(C) Assam
(D) Manipur
14. Right to Information Act was passed in the year?
(A) 2001
(B) 2005
(C) 2004
(D) 2002
15. In India FERA has been replaced by?
(A) FEMA
(B) FETA
(C) FENA
(D) FELA
16. The ‘Emerging Player of the Year 2008’ Award was given by ICC to which Sri Lankan cricketer?
(A) Ajantha Mendis
(B) Muttiah Murlitharan
(C) C. Kapugedera
(D) M. Mahroof
17. The term PC means?
(A) Private Computer
(B) Personal Computer
(C) Professional Computer
(0) Personal Calculator
18. Which one of the following Indian cricketers has been declared ‘The Leading Cricketer of 2008’ by Wisden?
(A) M. S. Dhoni
(B) Virendra Sehwag
(C) Anil Kumble
(D) Saurav Ganguly
19. Who is the present chief of ISRO?
(A) 6. Madhavan Nair
(B) Anil Kakodkar
(C) Mohan S. Shetty
(0) M. Arvindam
20. Who has taken over as Chief Election Commissioner after the retirement of Shri N. Gopalaswami?
(A) V. S. Sampath
(B) S. Y. Quraishi
(C) Navin Chawla
(D) M. S. Gill
21The imaginary places of same intervals are?
(A) Hachures
(B) Contours
(C) Spot-heights
(D) Isomers
22. The author of the book ‘My Experiments With Truth’ is?
(A) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Govind Vallabh Pant
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) Tara All Beg
23. Which one of the following business magnates has been adjudged the ‘Business Person of the Year 2008’ by The Times of India Survey?
(A) Ratan Tata
(B) Rahul Bajaj
(C) Aditya Birla
(D) Laxmi Mittal
24. The relationship between the value of money and the price level in an economy is?
(A)Direct
(B) Inverse
(C) Proportional
(D) Stable
25. Depreciation is equal to?
(A) Gross national product—Net national product
(B) Net national product—Gross national product
(C) Gross national product—Personal income
(D) Personal income—Personal taxes
26. In an economy, the sectors are classified into public and private on the basis of?
(A) Employment conditions
(B) Nature of economic activities
(C) Ownership of enterprises
(D) Use of raw materials
27. Stagflation is a situation of?
(A) Stagnation and deflation
(B) Stagnation and recession
(C) Stagnation and inflation
(D) Stagnation and recovery
28. What is Khetri in Rajasthan famous for?
(A) Copper mines
(B) Mica mines
(C) Bauxite mines
(D) Limestone mines
29. Which one of the following rivers forms an estuary?
(A)
(B) Kaveri
(C) Krishna
(D)
30. An important river of the Indian desert is?
(A)Luni
(B)
(C)
(D)
31.The Nagarjunasagar dam is constructed on the river?
(A)
(B) Chambal
(C)Kosi
(D)
32. Anantapur district in Andhra Pradesh is famous for?
(A) Copper
(B) Zinc
(C)Mica
(D) Gold
33. Bahadur Shah was the?
(A) Last ruler of the Lodis
(B) Successor of Sher Shah Suri
(C) Last Mughal ruler
(D) Successor of the Maratha ruler Shivaji
34. Mangal Pandey fired the first shot of the Revolt of 1857 at?
(A) Barrackpore
(C) Kanpur
(B)
(D)
35. The resources which can be used continuously, year-after- year are called?
(A) Biotic
(B) Abiotic
(C) Non-renewable
(D)Renewable
36. The coast that belongs to Kerala is known as—
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
37. Great Stupa at Sanchi is in?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Andhra Pradesh
38. What was the age of Akbar at time of his coronation at Kalanaur?
(A) Thirteen and a quarter
(B) Fifteen
(C) Eighteen
(D) Twenty
39.Which one of the following stages of the life of man in Aryan Society, in ascending order of age, is correct?
(A) Brahmacharya — Grihastha— Vanaprastha — Sanyasa
(B) Grihastha — Brahmacharya— Vanapaprastha — Sanyasa
(C) Brahmacharya — Vana prastha — Sanyasa — Grihastha
(D) Grihastha — Sanyasa — Vana-prastha — Brahmacharya
40. Who said ‘Swaraj is my birth-right and I shall have it’?
(A) M.K.Gandhi
(B) B. G. Tilak
(C) G K. Gokhale
(D) B. R. Ambedkar
41. ‘Charak’ was the famous court physician of ?
(A) Harsha
(B) Chandra Gupta Maurya
(C) Ashoka
(D) Kanishka
42. A person having AB group of blood can donate blood to a person having?
(A) A group
(B) B group
(D) Ogroup
43. Why do birds not have respiratory trouble at the time of flying at high altitude?
(A) Their lungs are very large
(B) They fly inactively
(C) They have extra air sacs
(D) They use less oxygen
44. After the Chauri-Chaura incident, Gandhiji suspended the—
(A) Civil Disobedience Movement
(B) Khilafat Movement
(C) Non-Cooperation Movement
(D) Quit
45. Refrigerators keep food unspoiled because?
(A) At its low temperature, bacteria and moulds are inactive
(B) At its low temperature, the germs are killed
(C) At its low temperature, the germs are frozen
(D) It sterilizes the food
46. Select the one which is not a mixture?
(A)Air
(B) Gasoline
(C)LPG
(D) Distilled water
47. The temperature which has the same reading on both Fahrenheit and Celsius scales is?
(A) 40 degree
(B)-40°
(C)-34°
(D)-140°
48 Water boils at a lower temperature on the hills because—
(A) It is cold on the hills
(B) There is less carbon dioxide on the hills
(C) There is a decrease in air pressure on the hills
(D) There is less oxygen
49. Source of energy in ecosystem is?
(A) Sun
(B) Green plants
(C) Sugar produced in photo synthesis
(D) ATP
50. Which of the following elements is not present in stainless steel ?
(A)Iron
(B) Tungsten
(C) Chromium
(D) Nickel
1. (C)2. (A)3. (B)4. (B)5. (B)6. (D)7. (C)8. (B)9. (D)10. (D)11. (A)12. (B)13. (A)14. (B)15. (A16.(A)17. (B)18. (B)19. (A)20. (C)21.(B)22. (C)23. (A)24. (B)25. (A)26.(C)27. (C)28. (A)29. (A)30. (A)31.(A)32.(D)33. (C)34. (A)35(D)36.(B)37.(B)38.(A)39.(A)40(B)41.(D)42. (C)43. (C)44. (C)45. (B)46.(D)47. (B)48. (C)49. (A) 50. (B)
Here is a Sample Question Paper for Marketing and Financial Awareness for candidates appearing for the State Bank of India (SBI) Management Executive Recruitment Exam.
1. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is better known as
(A) World Bank
(B) Asian Development Bank
(C) IMF
(D) It is known by its name
2. When was the Reserve Bank of India established?
(A) 1935
(B) 1920
(C) 1928
(D) 1947
3. Which is the largest commercial bank in India?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) Bank of India
4. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Imperial Bank of India
(C) Bank of India
(D) Union Bank of India
5. Which sister organization of the World Bank helps private activity in developing countries by financing projects with long-term capital in the form of equity and loans?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) IMF
(C) International Developmental Association
(D) International Finance Corporation
6. Which sister organization of the World Bank provides long term loans at zero interest to the poorest developing countries?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) IMF
(C) International Developmental Association
(D) International Finance Corporation
7. Who is known as the ‘Father of Economics’?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Chanakya
(C) Machiavelli
(D) None of these
8. Which was the first Indian Bank to introduce credit card?
(A) State Bank of India
(B) Central Bank of India
(C) Union Bank of India
(D) ICICI
9. What does devaluation of a currency mean?
(A) decrease in the internal value of money
(B) decrease in the external value of money
(C) decrease both in the external and internal values of money
(D) none of these
10.Which of the following is known as plastic money?
(A) bearer cheques
(B) credit cards
(C) demand drafts
(D) gift cheques
11. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of involvement in the context of buyer behaviour?
(A) The length of time involved in the buying process
(B) The potential impact of a product on an individual's self-identity
(C) The number of people involved in the decision-making unit
(D) The complexity of an order
12. Buying decisions generally follow a pattern of overlapping stages. Which of the following best describes the typical stages of the buying process?
(A) Need recognition > Information search > Evaluation > Decision > Post purchase evaluation
(B) Need recognition > Evaluation > Information search > Decision > Post purchase evaluation
(C) Information search > Need recognition > Evaluation > Decision > Post purchase evaluation
(D) Need recognition > Information search > Decision > Evaluation > Post purchase evaluation
13. Needs differ from wants because:
(A) Wants are a socialized manifestation of underlying needs
(B) Needs are a socialized manifest Needs are historical; wants are about the futuretation of underlying wants
(C) Needs are historical; wants are about the future
(D) Needs and wants are exactly the same
14. Which of the following levels of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is most likely to be associated with consumers' purchase of goods which appeal to their inner sense of peace of mind (e.g. art classes)?
(A) Self-actualization
(B) Love
(C) Security
(D) Physiological
15. An individual is considering buying a new microwave cooker and is faced with the possibility of several models. Which of the following describes the widest range of microwave cookers, which the buyer considers in some form?
(A) The choice set
(B) The awareness set
(C) The total set
(D) The pre-evaluation set
16. A company uses The Coors to endorse its range of snack foods. This endorsement is likely to be particularly effective if the Coors are seen by Large numbers of the company's target market as:
(A) A primary reference group.
(B) A tertiary reference group.
(C) A secondary reference group.
(D) A non-reference group.
17. Which of the following consumer responses is LEAST likely to overcome cognitive dissonance experienced by a consumer who is dissatisfied with their purchase?
(A) Rationalizing to ourselves that a product is actually quite good
(B) Seeing the product in a different light so that we emphasize the bad aspects of a product
(C) Seeing the product in a different light so that we emphasize the good aspects of a product
(D) Complaining and returning goods to the supplier
18.Which of the following labels is NOT associated with a role in a buying Decision Making Unit?
(A) Supplier
(B) Gatekeeper
(C) Decision maker
(D) User
19. A secretary who answers calls for a company buyer may be taking on which role within the company's decision-making unit?
(A) User
(B) Influencer
(C) Gatekeeper
(D) Buyer
20. Which of the following is NOT an element of a Marketing Information System?
(A) Marketing research
(B) Decision support system
(C) Production monitoring system
(D) None of these
Here is a sample paper for SBI Clerk Recruitment 2009 that will give you an idea about type of questions asked in the GJ section of the exam.
1. Which of the following places was known as a centre of learning in ancient India?
(1) Nalanda
(2) Ujjain
(3) Allahabad
(4) None of these
2. The process of transfer of heat by matter but without actual movement of the particles themselves is called.
(1) conduction
(2) convection
(3) radiation
(4) None of these
3. Only zero and one are used for operating
(1) Calculator
(2) Computer
(3) Abacus
(4) Typewriter
4. Transistor is
(1) semi-conductor
(2) inductor
(3) modulator
(4) demodulator
5. Computer cannot
(1) send message
(2) abstract thought
(3) read files
(4) play music
6. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate?
(1) Wax
(2) Starch
(3) Sucrose
(4) Maltose
7. Deficiency of which vitamin causes night blindness?
(1) Vit. B
(2) Vit. C
(3) Vit. A
(4) Vit. E
8. Which of the following is the vaccine for tuberculosis?
(1) OPT
(2) BCG
(3) Salk vaccine
(4) Rubella vaccine
9. Horns, nails and hair are
(1) soluble fats
(2) insoluble carbohydrates
(3) keratin proteins
(4) complex lipids
10. Who conducts the State Assembly Elections?
(1) Chief Justice of the High Court concerned.
(2) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(3) Chief Election Commissioner
(4) Governor of the State concerned
11. Which is an ore of aluminum?
(1) Chromite
(2) Cuprite
(3) Bauxite
(4) Siderite
12. Kalidas was
(1) a poet during the Gupta period.
(2) a dramatist during Harshvardhana’s reign.
(3) an astronomer during Gupta period.
(4) None of these
13. Which mirror is used as a rear view mirror in vehicles?
(1) Plain
(2) Convex
(3) Concave
(4) Spherical
14. The compilation Meri Ekyawan Kavitayen is by
(1) A.N. Vajpayee
(2) Harivanshrai Bachchan
(3) Dharam Vir Bharti
(4) Shiv Mangal Singh Suman
15. ‘Equinox’ means
(1) days are longer than nights.
(2) days and nights are equal.
(3) days are shorter than nights
(4) None of these
16. Who was known as “Nightingale of India”?
(1) Vijaylaxmi Pandit
(2) Sarojini Naidu
(3) Suraiya
(4) None of these
17. Gaya is associated with Lord Buddha, where he
(1) was born
(2) attained enlightenment
(3) died
(4) delivered his first sermon
18. Chemical change does not take place in
(1) souring of milk into curd
(2) rusting of iron in atmosphere
(3) burning of magnesium ribbon in air
(4) emitting of light by a red hot platinum wire
19. Who is the highest wicket-taker in Indian Cricket team?
(1) Javagal Srinath
(2) Anil Kumble
(3) Maninder Singh
(4) Kapil Dev
20. Which country leads in production of aluminum and aluminum goods?
(1) Austriala
(2) The US
(3) Russia
(4) Japan
21. The Nathu La Pass, which has increased Indian trade with a neighbour, lies between India and which country?
(1) Pakistan
(2) Bhutan
(3) Nepal
(4) China
(5) Tibet
22. The Banking Codes and Standards Boards has been formed to provide fair treatment to:
(1) Employees’ Unions
(2) Member Banks
(3) Officers
(4) SBI
(5) Customers
23. In India, the CRR at present is approximately:
(1) less than 5%
(2) 10% to 15%
(3) 5% to 10%
(4) 20%
(5) 35%
24. The present salary of an MP is (Rs per month)
(1) 2,500
(2) 5,000
(3) 7,500
(4) 15,000
(5) 16,000
25. Which river was recently found to be the longest?
(1) Amazon
(2) Nile
(3) Mississippi
(4) Ganga
(5) Yangtze Kiang
26. The highest Indian mountain-peak is:
(1) Mt Everest
(2) Nanga Parbat
(3) Dhaulagiri
(4) Godwin Austin
(5) Annapurna
27. Basel II norms will lead to:
(1) Capital A/c convertibility
(2) Better Stock Exchanges
(3) Better CRR
(4) Increased savings
(5) None of these
28. Rice is which kind of crop?
(1) Rabi
(2) Evergreen
(3) Kharif
(4) Inter-seasonal
(5) Monsoon
29. ‘Jog falls’ are in:
(1) Kerala
(2) J & K
(3) U.P.
(4) Uttaranchal
(5) Karnataka
30. The capitals of the new States Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Uttaranchal are:
(1) Raipur, Ranchi, Dehradun
(2) Ranchi, Patna, Nainital
(3) Raniganj, Patna, Dehradun
(4) Patna, Raipur, Nainital
(5) None of the above
ANSWER KEY
1) (1), 2) (1), 3) (2), 4) (1), 5) (2), 6) (1), 7) (3), 8) (2), 9) (3), 10) (3)
11) (3), 12) (1), 13) (2), 14) (1), 15) (2), 16) (2), 17) (2), 18) (4), 19) (2), 20) (2)
21) (4), 22) (5), 23) (2), 24) (5), 25) (1), 26) (2), 27) (1), 28) (5), 29) (5), 30) (1)
Here is a Sample Question Paper for Bank of India (BoI) Recruitment of General Banking Officers. All the question listed here have been solved for your convenience. This sample paper is equally useful for all candidate preparing for Bank PO, Clerical and SSC Recruitment Exams.
Directions (Q 1–5): In each of the letter series, find the missing letters.
1. a – c c a b c – a b – c – b c c
1. b a c c
2. b c c a
3. c b c a
4. c c b a
5. c a b c
2. b b c – b – c a b b – a – b c a
1. b c a b
2. a c b b
3. a b c b
4. c a b b
5. a d b c
3. x x – y – x x x x y – x x x x y – x
1. y x y y
2. y x x x
3. x y x x
4. x y y y
5. x x x y
4. a a – c – a b c a – b c a a b –
1. c a a b
2. a a c b
3. b a a c
4. b a c a
5. None of these
5. c c b – c – b a c c – a – c b a
1. b c a c
2. a b c c
3. c c b a
4. a c b c
5. None of these
6. A is B’s sister, C is B’s mother, D is C’s father and E is D’s mother. What is the relationship of A with E?
1. Daughter
2. Grand daughter
3. Grandson
4. Grandmother
5. Sister
7. If yesterday’s tomorrow was Wednesday, then yesterday’s day-after-tomorrow will be
1. Wednesday
2. Thursday
3. Friday
4. Saturday
5. Sunday
8. Which of the following groups of letters is different from the other groups of letters?
1. FETE
2. GAME
3. HUGE
4. LOVE
5. SMALL
9. Which of the following series is without any law/pattern?
1. FHKOT
2. CEHLP
3. IKNRW
4. LNQUZ
5. INTKR
10. In a row of the six members sitting, P is sitting to the left of Q but to the right of Y. R is sitting to the right of X but to the left of Q who is to the left of Z. The members sitting in the middle are
1. PR
2. RQ
3. XQ
4. PS
5. None of these
11. Select an item from those given in alternatives that has the same property as the one in question
697, 888, 945
1. 146
2. 934
3. 879
4. 555
5. 584
12. Find the missing term in the series BYAZ, ? , DWCX, EVDW
1. AXBY
2. CXBY
3. AZDW
4. CYBX
5. CDBY
13. Find the missing term in the series CEHLQ, FHKOT, ?, LNQUZ
1. GILPU
2. JLOSX
3. IKMQV
4. IKNRW
5. LKMST
14. A boat is going against the stream in a river and it first turns to exact right and then again a second time exactly to the right to its direction of motion. Assuming that the boat is propelled at constant velocity from the start, how will the speed be effected now?
1. Will increase or decrease
2. Will remain the same
3. Will increase
4. Will decrease
5. None of these
15. Select an item from those given as alternatives that has the same property as the one in question. 914, 703, 813
1. 611
2. 789
3. 870
4. 120
5. 154
Directions (Q 16–23): Find out the next term in the given series:
16. 9, 12, 21, 48, ?
1. 69
2. 84
3. 102
4. 129
5. 125
17. 95, 115.5, 138, ?
1. 162.5
2. 163.5
3. 164.5
4. 167.5
5. 125.5
18. 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, ?
1. 21
2. 23
3. 25
4. 29
5. 24
19. 563, 647, 479, 815, ?
1. 143
2. 279
3. 386
4. 672
5. 786
20. 79, 68, 57, 46, ?
1. 17
2. 27
3. 35
4. 66
5. 65
21. 5, 1/5, 17, 1/17, 29, 1/29, ?
1. 34
2. 39
3. 41
4. 49
5. 40
22. 18, 27, 6, 9, 2, 3, ?
1. 1
2. 1/3
3. 2/3
4. 1/2
5. 1/4
23. 4, 2, 8, 4, 24, 12, 96, ?
1. 24
2. 36
3. 40
4. 48
5. 50
Directions (Q 24–30): Which one is different from others?
24. Calf, Colt, Puppy, Cat, Cub
1. Calf
2. Colt
3. Puppy
4. Cat
5. Cub
25. Ox, Peacock, Lion, Hen, Tiger
1. Lion
2. Ox
3. Peacock
4. Hen
5. Tiger
26. Copper, Diamond, Silver, Gold, Platinum
1. Diamond
2. Gold
3. Silver
4. Copper
5. Platinum
27. Diet, Died, Tied, Tide, Fried
1. Tide
2. Diet
3. Tied
4. Died
5. Fried
28. 16, 22, 30, 45, 52, 66
1. 30
2. 45
3. 52
4. 66
5. 16
29. 8754, 9786, 7986, 3243, 1245
1. 8754
2. 9786
3. 7986
4. 3243
5. 1245
30. 1622, 2540, 3840, 5786, 5453
1. 5786
2. 3840
3. 2540
4. 1622
5. 5453
Answers
1. 2, 2. 3, 3. 4, 4. 3, 5. 4, 6. 2, 7. 2, 8. 1, 9. 2, 10. 4
11. 2, 12. 2, 13. 4, 14. 3, 15. 1, 16. 4, 17. 1, 18. 2, 19. 1, 20. 3
21. 3, 22. 3, 23. 4, 24. 4, 25. 4, 26. 1, 27. 1, 28. 2, 29. 3, 30. 1
Directions (Q1, 2, 3): Choose the word which most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in CAPITALS as used in the passage.
1. SCALE
1. balance
2. proportion
3. quality
4. steep
5. trace
2. ENVIABLE
1. miserable
2. disappointing
3. insurmountable
4. pessimistic
5. admirable
3. SIPID
1. Flavoured
2. Stupid
3. Beautiful
4. Rude
5. None of these
Directions (Q. 4, 5): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in CAPITALS as used in the passage.
4. DEPENDABLE
1. independent
2. creditable
3. unreliable
4. unapproachable
5. incongruent
5. FRAGILE
1. weak
2. perfect
3. vulnerable
4. robust
5. delicate
Directions (Q. 6-10): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any will be one part of the sentence. The number of that part of the sentence is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5). (Ignore the error of punctuation, if any.)
6. At present, nearly / all foundries of / the country use coke / as a natural fuel. / No error
7. The Bill ensures that / the chairperson or members / cannot be removed out of office / except by an order of the President / No error
8. The directives in the holy books thus lay / emphasis on the need to / avoid get caught / on the stranglehold of worldly attractions / No error
9. An effective criminal law / is required for / effective implementation of / rules of law / No error
10. Local residents told the Chief Minister / that the building / was unauthorised construction / No error
Directions (Q. 11-15): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words denoted by 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5. Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
11. A _______ is known for his _______
1. hypocrite, honesty
2. braggart, modesty
3. altruist, truthfulness
4. mercenary, sincerity
5. philanthropist, benevolence
12. One _______ by which we may estimate the character of a man in public office is his _______
1. hyperbole, intuition
2. criterion, integrity
3. amenity, civility
4. unwary, irritable
5. specious, misanthropic
13. Because of his _______ honesty, employers tolerated his _______ outbursts and did not fire him
1. rapacious, amenable
2. unwavering, irascible
3. amiable, regular
4. unwary, irritable
5. specious, misanthropic
14. The _______ law of increase old age pensions was passed to _______ the hardship of the elderly voters in the state.
1. auspicious, mollify
2. expedient, alleviate
3. equivocal, aggravate
4. exemplary, condone
5. notorious, assuage
15. When I listened to his _______ arguments, all my doubts were _______ and I was forced to agree with his point of view.
1. competent, compelled
2. congruent, confirmed
3. cogent, dispelled
4. forceful, repelled
5. fluent, ignored
Directions (Q. 16-20): Which of the following phrases 1, 2, 3, and 4 given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the sentence either correct or phrased in different words?
16. No caring for the family, Dhanraj wanted to gather roses only.
1. wanted to paint a rosy picture of the past
2. make safe investment
3. wanted to start the business of roses
4. wanted to seek all enjoyments of life
5. None of these
17. After the successful performance of the great actor was over, there was thunderstruck applause.
1. fearful
2. cheerful
3. decisive
4. thunderous
5. No correction required
18. We might not be able to change the situation quickly, but we should continue our efforts in that direction.
1. could not be
2. had not been
3. would not
4. did not
5. No correction required
19. The monograph, which was published three years ago, would suggest that by 2001 there will be 73 million TV sets in India.
1. has been suggesting
2. would have suggested
3. will suggest
4. had suggested
5. No correction required
20. Some of the African have been enmeshed in an inescapable debt trap.
1. entangled
2. hit
3. struck
4. ensured
5. None of these
Answers:
1. 2, 2. 5, 3. 1, 4. 3, 5. 4, 6. 2, 7. 3, 8. 3, 9. 4, 10. 4
11. 5, 12. 2, 13. 2, 14. 2, 15. 3, 16. 4, 17. 4, 18. 5, 19. 4, 20. 1
1. If the following alphabets were written in the reverse order, which would be the fourth letter to the right of the fifteenth letter from the left?
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
1. G
2. H
3. I
4. S
5. None of these
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
1. Ears
2. Hands
3. Fingers
4. Eyes
5. Legs
3. How many 4’s immediately preceded by 5 but not immediately followed by 7 are there in the following series of numbers?
5 4 8 7 4 9 5 4 7 7 4 5 5 4 6 5 4 7 5 4 7 3 2 4 7
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
5. None of these
4. If the first and second letters in the word ‘COMMUNICATIONS’ were interchanged, also the third and the fourth letters, the fifth and the sixth letters and so on, which letter would be the tenth letter counting from your right?
1. U
2. A
3. T
4. N
5. None of these
5. Lokesh remembers that his brother Laxman’s birthday falls after 20th of August but before 28th of August, while Rita remember that Laxman’s birthday falls before 22nd of August but after 12th of August. On what date Laxman’s birthday falls?
1. 20th August
2. 21st August
3. 22nd August
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
1. 12
2. 13
3. 15
4. 18
5. 26
7. In a certain code ‘BELOW’ is written as ‘FCKVN’. How is ‘GIVEN’ written in that code?
1. JHWMD
2. HJUMD
3. JHMUD
4. JHUMD
5. None of these
8. In a certain code ‘2 5 6’ means ‘Red Colour Chalk’, ‘ 5 8 9’ means ‘Green Colour Flower’ and ‘ 2 4 5’ means ‘White Colour Chalk’. What digit in the code means ‘White’?
1. 2
2. 4
3. 5
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these
9. If the following words were rearranged in alphabetical order as in a dictionary, which will come in the middle?
1. Plane
2. Plain
3. Plenty
4. Player
5. Place
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
1. Bud
2. Branch
3. Leaf
4. Root
5. Plant
11. ‘Needle’ is related to ‘Clock’ as ‘Wheel’ is related to…?
1. Drive
2. Vehicle
3. Circular
4. Move
5. Road
12. Two letters in the word ‘PRESENCE’ have as many letters between them in the word as there are between them in the alphabet and in the same order. Which one of the two letters comes earlier in the alphabet?
1. C
2. E
3. R
4. P
5. None of these
13. Rakesh is standing at a point. He walks 20 m towards the East and further 10 m towards the South; then he walks 35 m towards the West; and further 5 m towards the East. What is the straight distance in metres between his starting point and the point where he reached last?
1. 0
2. 5
3. 10
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these
14. Which of the following pairs of letters should come in the place of question mark(?) in the twin letter series given below?
BY IQ NK QG ?
1. RF
2. TF
3. RE
4. SE
5. None of these
15. If '+' means '/', '/' means '-', '-' means 'x' and 'x' means '+' then
48 + 16 / 4 – 2 x 8 = ?
1. 3
2. 6
3. -28
4. 112
5. None of these
Answers:
1. 2, 2. 3, 3. 1, 4. 4, 5. 2, 6. 2, 7. 4, 8. 2, 9. 1, 10. 5, 11. 2, 12. 4, 13. 2, 14. 3, 15. 1